Just curious about other bowlers thoughts on this. I made a deal for a bowling ball, both parties agreed about payment and seller said it was to late to ship the ball that day so he'd ship tomorrow first thing, I agreed. Later that evening I get a message from the seller saying he used the ball that night and it got damaged, once he gets the ball back we can redo the deal. I told him, no deal, keep the ball I no longer want it. I feel once we struck the deal that was now my ball and you shouldn't have used it. I was pretty pissed. So is it allright for a seller or trader to use the equipment once they have struck a deal?

No, I would say that the ball becomes your property once the seller receives payment.  If you paid for the ball, THEN he used it, that is unethical IMO.  However, if payment was not yet sent, then there is no problem. 

"both parties agreed about payment".  Not sure if this is saying payment was made or not, but "late to ship the ball that day so he'd ship tomorrow first thing" tells me you may have sent payment.

I'd request a refund (if payment was sent) and be done with it.

Apparently you DID NOT pay for the ball (my interpretation from your posting). I would say that it was the sellers ball until he receives the payment. If he used the ball after making the deal with you and damages the ball .. the seller did right by telling you he wanted to redo the deal (I'm guessing the price would be lower on the redo). He had no choice.
You might start thinking that the seller was trying to back out of a deal he thought was BAD! That would be hard to prove.
Consider yourself lucky and forget about the ball!

In my case the ball was paid for already, but I also got my money back. I'm asking for your opinion if you make a deal with someone to buy, sell or trade once you strike a deal should the equipment still be used or put aside

a deal is a deal. what if the seller got a better offer and pulled out of the first deal, before payment was in hand? not a class move.

No, I would say that the ball becomes your property once the seller receives payment.  If you paid for the ball, THEN he used it, that is unethical IMO.  However, if payment was not yet sent, then there is no problem. 

"both parties agreed about payment".  Not sure if this is saying payment was made or not, but "late to ship the ball that day so he'd ship tomorrow first thing" tells me you may have sent payment.

I'd request a refund (if payment was sent) and be done with it.

A deal is a deal when the transaction is processed IMO, as opposed to when the terms of the deal is reached. 

Say you were to purchase from me, we agree on a price, ball is 100 dollars (oh the irony).  That ball is MINE until you pay for it, then its yours. 

THAT BEING SAID, I wouldn't throw it if we agreed to the terms of a deal.  So while I think the OP's seller was within his rights to do it, I wouldn't.

a deal is a deal. what if the seller got a better offer and pulled out of the first deal, before payment was in hand? not a class move.

Quote from: Good Times Good Times on August 15, 2012, 09:25:07 AM

No, I would say that the ball becomes your property once the seller receives payment.  If you paid for the ball, THEN he used it, that is unethical IMO.  However, if payment was not yet sent, then there is no problem. 

"both parties agreed about payment".  Not sure if this is saying payment was made or not, but "late to ship the ball that day so he'd ship tomorrow first thing" tells me you may have sent payment.

I'd request a refund (if payment was sent) and be done with it.

I guess I am in the minority....I think the seller was wrong. Once you start trying to sell a ball, I feel it should not be used. And especially once someone agrees to purchase the ball, payment made or not. My reasoning is this: you are selling a ball under certain conditions, i.e the ball only has 25 games on it. Yet you continue to use it and when you do sell it, it may have 50 games on it. I doubt the seller changed his ad show this difference. You are not giving the buyer what he is paying for by doing this. And once the deal is agreed to, that is even worse. Even in baseball once a trade is agreed to the players are pulled from the game, same should go for a piece of equipment like a bowling ball. Once the trade is agreed to, that ball should be pulled and not thrown. JMHO.
 

Is this anything similar to selling a car.  I have a car to sell, but it is also my only means of transportation.  Upon selling the car (money in hand) I would then purchase another car.  Am I not allowed to drive the car up until money is in my hand? 

However, I wouldn't have used the ball; but until money has been transferred, the ball is still the original owner's.  Hopefully the original owner would have disclosed any changes to the original sale conditions (extra games) but I have my doubts.

I agree completely.