BallReviews
General Category => Miscellaneous => Topic started by: Big Jake on May 22, 2012, 02:43:13 PM
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Hello Group
Could someone explain to me the term "mass bias" and which balls would have it and why one wouldnt and the benifits of a "mass bias".
Thanks, Jake
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Technically, all balls have a mass bias after drilling. A mass bias before drilling is present in asymmetrical balls. The intermediate differential will tell you how much of an influence the mass bias has in the ball.
Example. AMF Clutch has a intermediate diff of .008. That mass bias won't have much of an effect in the motion of the ball.
MoRich NSane LevRG has a intermediate diff of .035. MUCH stronger, therefore, much more influential in the motion of the ball. In my experience, it also means that you have to be much more accurate with the placement of the MB to achieve the desired ball reaction.
But, to simplify (It's hard for me to do that, lol), it's just another factor in laying out the ball. Asymmetrical have a tendency to hook/stop more than symmetrical, all things considered. Both are useful to have in your bag.
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Thanks that really was helpful, btw, what is meant by "hook/stop"?
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To not keep continuing through the pins in the same motion. So it kind of sets up at the pocket. This is all based off of drilling, by the way. I've made MB balls be very smooth and continuous, and make symmetrical balls hook, then stop. It's all based on drilling.
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Technically, bowling balls have always had a mass bias. Once you had a ball drilled up one side of the ball is heavier than the others.......this is a mass bias. Only recently has this term received almost mythical status.....
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Here's a link to a glossary that includes a definition of mass bias. -- JohnP
http://wiki.bowlingchat.net/wiki/index.php?title=Glossary